by Sun Tzu » 01 Jan 2009 17:19
by Mr Angry » 01 Jan 2009 17:37
by westendgirl » 01 Jan 2009 18:54
Schards#2
My main question is, in the hypothetical scenario that JM called in these loans, is RFC in any way responsible for the 17 million in addition to the 9 million?
This leads to further questions about the relationship between the football club and the hotel. Previous posters have suggested that the hotel provides the football club with an income stream and you said that it had been, historically, subsidising the club. If that's the case, does it follow that, in a scenario where the football club was making a vast profit and the hotel a loss, the reverse would be true?
Finally, if the hotel went bust, can creditors recover their money from the football club on the grounds that the debt becomes the responsibility of the holding company and the football club is an asset of that company?
It be grateful if you could answer these points, not for any alterior motive, but simply out of curiosity as i'd never previously appreciated the apparant interdependence between the hotel and the football club. Thanks
by westendgirl » 01 Jan 2009 19:01
JC I have the full set of consolidated accounts and it quotes the group having tangible fixxed assets of £59 million but the company (ie RFC Holdings plc) having fixed assets of 750k. Therefore the holding company does not appear to own the ground. I would guess therefore, without seeing the individual company accounts, that RFC limited owns the ground and the hotel company the hotel.
I think this whole debate is somewhat spurious since what happens to the club is down to JM and him alone. It becomes academic in many ways as to what accounting treatment is used to record ownership of assets in differents compamies.
by Schards#2 » 01 Jan 2009 19:21
westendgirlSchards#2
My main question is, in the hypothetical scenario that JM called in these loans, is RFC in any way responsible for the 17 million in addition to the 9 million?
This leads to further questions about the relationship between the football club and the hotel. Previous posters have suggested that the hotel provides the football club with an income stream and you said that it had been, historically, subsidising the club. If that's the case, does it follow that, in a scenario where the football club was making a vast profit and the hotel a loss, the reverse would be true?
Finally, if the hotel went bust, can creditors recover their money from the football club on the grounds that the debt becomes the responsibility of the holding company and the football club is an asset of that company?
It be grateful if you could answer these points, not for any alterior motive, but simply out of curiosity as i'd never previously appreciated the apparant interdependence between the hotel and the football club. Thanks
Why would JM call in loans if in doing so he would bankrupt the holding company and so destroy the asset he owns? After all be own 4+million shares of the 4++million shares so it would be only one pocket to another.
Yes the football club and the hotel are both owned by the holding company and so there can be cross subsidising from one to the other. However I think the chance of the football club making a vast profit (to the point of wiping out the current accumulated losses even) is still some way off in the current football arms race of transfer fees and wages/ And if that arms race was destroyed in the current economic climate the chance of vast profits is even more unlikely.
The companies owned by the holding company are separate limited companies - at the risk of being patronising, a company that is limited has a liability limited to that companies assets and so unless someone loaning to hotel asked for guarantees from the holding company there is no way the holding company (or any other of the companies owned by it) is vulnerable to the debts of the hotel. In essence that is why this structure is used to keep companies associated but still separate in terms of liability.
HTH
by rabidbee » 01 Jan 2009 19:27
by Platypuss » 02 Jan 2009 00:36
Mr Angry As for the ground, I'm sure this has been discussed before - doesn't Sir John own the ground? If he sells the club, the ground WOULDN'T be included; instead, RFC's new owners would rent out the ground from Sir John. He has the arrangement with London Irish - RFC doesn't.
by JC » 02 Jan 2009 02:05
Royal RotherIan RoyalRoyal Rother The tfr fees and parachute payment should hopefully mean we'll be close to profit I'd have thought - depending on what happens in January of course!!
(Although it should be remembered that if we buy someone for £5m on a 3 year contract, the cost in the accounts would only be a proportion of the fee, probably 1/6th, (representing 6 months of 3 years if you see what I mean). If we sell Hunt it will all show as income with no part of a signing on fee to write off as a cost.)
Therefore if in January we sell Hunt for £5m, and buy someone else for same fee on a 3 year contract we would effectively make an accounting profit to show in the 2008/9 accounts of £4.17m, (being £5m less £833k).
Hope that's clear!!
That doesn't make any sense. How can the whole outgoing fee not show up!? It's been spent already. Wages fine, but fee doesn't make any sense to me at all.
The rest of the £5m in my example sits in Intangible Assets on the Balance Sheet and is only recorded as a cost in the Profit & Loss account (reducing the profit) as it is written off over the period of the initial contract.
e.g. if £5m is spent in Jan 09 on a player on a 3 year contract, the fee will be effectively spread at £1.67m per year for the 3 year term. At the start that fee is treated as a (Intangible) Fixed Asset of the club so does not impact on the Profit recorded which tends to be what most supporters are most interested in, in discussions about the accounts.
(Comany's year end is June.)
In the accounts to June 2009 6 months' worth of player's £5m fee is written off, i.e. £883k. At that point the Balance Sheet now has a value of the player in Fixed Assets of £4.17m.
In the accounts to June 2010 a full year of his contract value is written off (thus reducing the profit recorded in the accounts), being £1.67m, so now a cumulative 18 months' has been written off - unsurprisingly he is now worth £2.5m in the Balance Sheet... I'm sure you can extrapolate this to the end of the contract...
by JC » 02 Jan 2009 02:13
westendgirlSchards#2
My main question is, in the hypothetical scenario that JM called in these loans, is RFC in any way responsible for the 17 million in addition to the 9 million?
This leads to further questions about the relationship between the football club and the hotel. Previous posters have suggested that the hotel provides the football club with an income stream and you said that it had been, historically, subsidising the club. If that's the case, does it follow that, in a scenario where the football club was making a vast profit and the hotel a loss, the reverse would be true?
Finally, if the hotel went bust, can creditors recover their money from the football club on the grounds that the debt becomes the responsibility of the holding company and the football club is an asset of that company?
It be grateful if you could answer these points, not for any alterior motive, but simply out of curiosity as i'd never previously appreciated the apparant interdependence between the hotel and the football club. Thanks
Why would JM call in loans if in doing so he would bankrupt the holding company and so destroy the asset he owns? After all be own 4+million shares of the 4++million shares so it would be only one pocket to another.
Yes the football club and the hotel are both owned by the holding company and so there can be cross subsidising from one to the other. However I think the chance of the football club making a vast profit (to the point of wiping out the current accumulated losses even) is still some way off in the current football arms race of transfer fees and wages/ And if that arms race was destroyed in the current economic climate the chance of vast profits is even more unlikely.
The companies owned by the holding company are separate limited companies - at the risk of being patronising, a company that is limited has a liability limited to that companies assets and so unless someone loaning to hotel asked for guarantees from the holding company there is no way the holding company (or any other of the companies owned by it) is vulnerable to the debts of the hotel. In essence that is why this structure is used to keep companies associated but still separate in terms of liability.
HTH
by Sun Tzu » 02 Jan 2009 10:03
by Schards#2 » 02 Jan 2009 10:24
by Ian Royal » 02 Jan 2009 14:18
Schards#2 For me, the main point is the extent to which the football and the hotel are financially intertwined. It is reassuring to read that the football club cannot be forced to meet the debts of the hotel in a worst case scenario.
It would appear that JM can choose to move money between the two entities as he wishes but, if the football club was entirely stand alone, it would still be dependent on JM's benevolance and personal priorities so this relationship is not disconcerting and from what westendgirl said, it would appear the historically the football side has benefitted rather than suffered.
by Sun Tzu » 02 Jan 2009 14:27
by Ian Royal » 02 Jan 2009 15:42
by Sun Tzu » 02 Jan 2009 15:53
by Hoop Blah » 02 Jan 2009 16:43
by Ian Royal » 02 Jan 2009 20:52
by Royal Rother » 03 Jan 2009 01:09
by PEARCEY » 03 Jan 2009 11:01
Ian Royal There are always things we'd like to see done slightly differently to suit our view of things, but I'm glad we can agree the club is basically well run and going about things right.
by PEARCEY » 03 Jan 2009 11:02
Ian Royal There are always things we'd like to see done slightly differently to suit our view of things, but I'm glad we can agree the club is basically well run and going about things right.
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